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Topic - mini-Quiz
Posted: 18 May 2020 at 14:21 By Vanuatu
Originally posted by franciscosan franciscosan wrote:

I wonder if all of a particular kind of creole (English, Spanish, French) are the same regardless of location.  My guess is that they wouldn't be equivalent, (one English creole=?=another English creole).

It's misleading, not Esperanto but sounds like the same process;

When groups of people speaking different languages come together and intermix, a common improvised second language, called a pidgin, occasionally develops. It allows speakers of two or more non-intelligible native languages to communicate with each other. Subsequently, such a language can replace the settlers’ original language and become the first language of their descendants. Such languages are called creoles. The difference between pidgins and creoles is that people grow up speaking creoles as their first language, whereas nobody speaks pidgin as their first language. There is no single accepted theory that explains the genesis of creole languages.

The term creole comes from the French creole, from Spanish criollo ‘person native to a locality’. The word was coined in the 16th century and applied to people born in the colonies, to distinguish them from European-born immigrants. In the Portuguese-speaking world, the term referred specifically to people of mixed European and non-European ancestry.

Since most creole languages developed in the colonies they are typically based on EnglishFrenchPortuguese, and Spanish, the languages of the superpowers of the time. However, there are also numerous creoles based on other languages such as ArabicHindi, and Malay.


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